Here are 25 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) on the Constitution of India, tailored for JKSSB and similar competitive exams, with answers and explanations:
Section C: Constitution of India
Q1. Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar is widely regarded as the ‘Father of the Indian Constitution’ and was the Chairman of the crucial Drafting Committee.
Q2. When was the Constitution of India adopted by the Constituent Assembly?
(a) 26 January 1950
(b) 15 August 1947
(c) 26 November 1949
(d) 2 October 1949
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The Constitution was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 26th November 1949, and it came into force fully on 26th January 1950.
Q3. Which of the following is NOT a fundamental right guaranteed by the Indian Constitution?
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right to Property
(c) Right to Freedom
(d) Right against Exploitation
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The Right to Property was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978, and made a legal right under Article 300A.
Q4. The concept of “Directive Principles of State Policy” (DPSP) in the Indian Constitution is borrowed from which country’s constitution?
(a) USA
(b) Ireland
(c) UK
(d) Canada
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The Directive Principles of State Policy are enumerated in Part IV of the Constitution and are inspired by the Irish Constitution.
Q5. How many schedules are there in the Constitution of India?
(a) 8
(b) 10
(c) 12
(d) 14
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Originally, the Indian Constitution had 8 schedules. Currently, due to various amendments, it has 12 schedules.
Q6. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with Fundamental Duties?
(a) Part III
(b) Part IV
(c) Part IVA
(d) Part V
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, and are listed in Part IVA (Article 51A).
Q7. The Preamble to the Indian Constitution declares India as a:
(a) Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic
(b) Sovereign, Democratic, Republic
(c) Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic
(d) Sovereign, Socialist, Secular Republic
Answer: (a)
Explanation: The Preamble outlines the nature of the Indian state, and the words ‘Socialist’ and ‘Secular’ were added by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976.
Q8. Which article of the Indian Constitution grants the ‘Right to Constitutional Remedies’?
(a) Article 19
(b) Article 21
(c) Article 32
(d) Article 226
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Article 32 allows a person to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement of his/her Fundamental Rights. Dr. Ambedkar called it the “heart and soul” of the Constitution.
Q9. Who is the constitutional head of the Indian Union?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) President
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The President of India is the head of the state and the supreme commander of the armed forces, though his powers are largely ceremonial.
Q10. The concept of Judicial Review in India is adopted from the constitution of which country?
(a) United Kingdom
(b) Canada
(c) United States of America
(d) Australia
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The principle of Judicial Review, which allows courts to declare laws unconstitutional, is a significant feature borrowed from the US Constitution.
Q11. The minimum age required to become the President of India is:
(a) 25 years
(b) 30 years
(c) 35 years
(d) 40 years
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Article 58 of the Constitution specifies the qualifications for election as President, including attaining the age of 35 years.
Q12. What does the term “Secular” in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution imply?
(a) State promotes a particular religion
(b) State has no official religion and treats all religions equally
(c) State encourages atheism
(d) State discriminates based on religion
Answer: (b)
Explanation: A secular state means that the state does not uphold any religion as the state religion and provides equal respect and protection to all religions.
Q13. In which year was the first amendment to the Indian Constitution made?
(a) 1950
(b) 1951
(c) 1952
(d) 1956
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The First Amendment Act of 1951 primarily dealt with issues like social and economic backwardness, abolition of zamindari, and reasonable restrictions on freedom of speech.
Q14. Which body is responsible for conducting elections for the Parliament and State Legislatures in India?
(a) Supreme Court
(b) Union Public Service Commission
(c) Election Commission of India
(d) President
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The Election Commission of India is an autonomous constitutional authority responsible for administering election processes in India.
Q15. The concept of “single citizenship” in India is inspired by the constitution of which country?
(a) USA
(b) Switzerland
(c) UK (Britain)
(d) Canada
Answer: (c)
Explanation: India follows the system of single citizenship, meaning a person is a citizen of India and not of any particular state, a concept borrowed from the British Constitution.
Q16. Which article deals with the ‘Protection of Life and Personal Liberty’?
(a) Article 19
(b) Article 20
(c) Article 21
(d) Article 22
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Article 21 is a fundamental right that guarantees the right to life and personal liberty, considered the most important fundamental right.
Q17. The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha is fixed at:
(a) 545
(b) 550
(c) 552
(d) 530
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The maximum strength is 552 members (530 from states, 20 from Union Territories, and 2 nominated Anglo-Indians, though the Anglo-Indian nomination has been abolished).
Q18. Who ultimately interprets the Constitution of India?
(a) Parliament
(b) President
(c) Supreme Court
(d) Prime Minister
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The Supreme Court of India is the final interpreter and guardian of the Constitution.
Q19. The Vice-President of India is also the ex-officio Chairman of the:
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Planning Commission (now NITI Aayog)
(d) Union Cabinet
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Article 64 states that the Vice-President shall be the ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha).
Q20. Which amendment to the Indian Constitution lowered the voting age from 21 years to 18 years?
(a) 42nd Amendment
(b) 44th Amendment
(c) 61st Amendment
(d) 73rd Amendment
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The 61st Amendment Act of 1988, which came into effect in 1989, reduced the voting age for Lok Sabha and state assembly elections.
Q21. Panchayati Raj System was introduced in India by the:
(a) 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act
(b) 74th Constitutional Amendment Act
(c) 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act
(d) 44th Constitutional Amendment Act
Answer: (a)
Explanation: The 73rd Amendment Act, 1992, gave constitutional status to the Panchayati Raj institutions, enabling their establishment across the country.
Q22. The term of office of a member of the Rajya Sabha is:
(a) 4 years
(b) 5 years
(c) 6 years
(d) Permanent
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Members of the Rajya Sabha are elected for a term of six years, with one-third of its members retiring every two years.
Q23. Which Fundamental Right ensures the abolition of untouchability?
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right to Freedom
(c) Right against Exploitation
(d) Cultural and Educational Rights
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Article 17, under the Right to Equality, specifically abolishes ‘Untouchability’ and forbids its practice in any form.
Q24. A Proclamation of National Emergency must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within:
(a) One month
(b) Two months
(c) Three months
(d) Six months
Answer: (a)
Explanation: As per Article 352, a proclamation of National Emergency must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within one month from the date of its issue.
Q25. Which Part of the Constitution deals with the Union Territories?
(a) Part VII
(b) Part VIII
(c) Part IX
(d) Part X
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Part VIII of the Indian Constitution, comprising Articles 239 to 242, deals with the administration and governance of Union Territories.
